Answer all 50 questions below. Then click "Check Answers" at the bottom to see your score.
Q1. A client is receiving IV lorazepam (Ativan) for acute anxiety in the emergency department. The nurse notices the client's respiratory rate decreases from 18 to 10 breaths per minute. The nurse recognizes this is a potential effect of benzodiazepines because they are CNS depressants. True or False?
Q2. A nurse is providing education to a client with a history of substance misuse. The client asks, “I’ve heard of ‘roofies’—what exactly is that drug?” Which of the following benzodiazepines is known as an illegal “date rape drug,” commonly referred to as “roofies”?
Q3. A client started on clonazepam (Klonopin) reports blurred vision, dry mouth, and constipation. The nurse recognizes these symptoms as indicative of __________ effects.
Q4. A client newly prescribed buspirone (Buspar) asks if it can help with acute panic attacks. The nurse explains that buspirone usually takes about 2 weeks to achieve full therapeutic benefit and is not useful for acute anxiety episodes. True or False?
Q5. A client taking buspirone (Buspar) returns for follow-up and mentions experiencing mild stomach upset and feeling slightly restless. Which of the following side effects is commonly reported with buspirone?
Q6. A client with alcohol dependence is started on disulfiram (Antabuse). The nurse warns that ingesting alcohol in any form (including cough syrups or hidden alcohol in foods) can lead to severe adverse reactions such as vomiting, flushing, and tachycardia. True or False?
Q7. A client recovering from alcohol dependence is prescribed acamprosate (Campral). The nurse explains that this medication helps to decrease __________ in individuals aiming to maintain sobriety.
Q8. A nurse in the emergency department receives a client with suspected opioid overdose. Which medication is given emergently to reverse opioid overdose by instantly blocking opioid receptor sites?
Q9. Short answer: After administering naloxone (Narcan) to a patient experiencing opioid overdose, the nurse observes the patient becoming agitated, complaining of intense pain, and showing signs of sympathetic overactivity. This presentation is characteristic of acute __________.
Q10. A client is prescribed buprenorphine/naloxone (Suboxone) for opioid use disorder maintenance. The nurse explains that if the medication is injected rather than taken sublingually, it can precipitate withdrawal symptoms. True or False?
Q11. A client on haloperidol (Haldol) presents with muscle restlessness, involuntary muscle contractions, and shuffling gait. The nurse recognizes these as hallmark signs of which side effect group?
Q12. A nurse caring for a client on a long-term regimen of typical antipsychotics observes repetitive lip-smacking and involuntary tongue movements. The nurse suspects tardive dyskinesia (TD). True or False?
Q13. A client on a high-potency typical antipsychotic suddenly develops fever, muscle rigidity, and altered mental status. The nurse identifies this as neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is considered a medical __________.
Q14. A client taking an atypical antipsychotic requires regular lab work to monitor for agranulocytosis. The nurse knows this risk is most associated with which medication?
Q15. A nurse is explaining second-generation antipsychotics to a client with schizophrenia. The nurse states these agents typically have a lower risk of EPS/TD but a higher risk of metabolic syndrome, including weight gain and hyperglycemia. True or False?
Q16. A client starting risperidone (Risperdal) is advised to have regular monitoring of fasting glucose, lipids, and BMI to watch for the development of __________ syndrome.
Q17. A client experiencing acute dystonic reactions from haloperidol is given diphenhydramine (Benadryl). The nurse explains that diphenhydramine can help with EPS but often causes drowsiness and has anticholinergic effects. True or False?
Q18. While receiving diphenhydramine for EPS, a client reports difficulty urinating. The nurse knows this is a common side effect due to diphenhydramine’s anticholinergic properties. Which effect is the client likely experiencing?
Q19. A nurse is reviewing medications for a client with EPS. Which of the following anticholinergic drugs is commonly prescribed to reduce EPS symptoms in patients on antipsychotics?
Q20. The nurse explains to a client that anticholinergics like benztropine help counteract EPS by reducing excessive cholinergic activity in the basal ganglia. True or False?
Q21. A client with tardive dyskinesia (TD) is prescribed valbenazine (Ingrezza). The nurse explains that valbenazine and deutetrabenazine are VMAT2 inhibitors primarily used to treat __________ dyskinesia.
Q22. The nurse is educating a client on valbenazine. The nurse states that VMAT2 inhibitors work by directly blocking dopamine D2 receptors to reduce TD. True or False?
Q23. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing acute mania and is started on valproic acid (Depakote). The nurse knows this anticonvulsant requires liver function monitoring due to potential hepatotoxicity. Which drug is the nurse administering?
Q24. A client taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) is informed that periodic LFTs and CBC checks are necessary because this drug can cause liver inflammation, leukopenia, and even aplastic anemia. True or False?
Q25. A client on lamotrigine (Lamictal) develops a concerning rash on the trunk and face. The nurse instructs the client to stop the medication immediately and contact the provider due to the risk of __________-Johnson syndrome.
Q26. A client is newly diagnosed with bipolar disorder and started on lithium carbonate. The nurse explains that therapeutic onset may take 5–14 days, so an antipsychotic may be used initially to control acute mania. Which statement is most accurate?
Q27. The nurse is reviewing lithium lab values for a client with bipolar disorder. A level of 1.2 mEq/L is within the therapeutic range of approximately 0.8–1.4 mEq/L. True or False?
Q28. A client on lithium must have ongoing assessments of renal function. The nurse reminds the client that lithium is excreted by the kidneys and can cause potential ________ issues over time.
Q29. A client with major depressive disorder is started on an SSRI. The nurse anticipates that citalopram (Celexa) may be prescribed. Which of the following is an SSRI indicated for depression and/or anxiety?
Q30. A client taking sertraline (Zoloft) reads about a black box warning for suicide risk, especially early in treatment. The nurse confirms that SSRIs do carry this warning. True or False?
Q31. A client complains of GI upset and sexual side effects after 1 week on an SSRI. The nurse educates that full therapeutic effects can take __________ weeks, and some side effects may lessen over time.
Q32. A client on venlafaxine (Effexor) also uses St. John’s Wort for mood. The nurse cautions about potential serotonin syndrome because SNRIs can increase serotonin levels. True or False?
Q33. A client’s prescription label indicates the medication is an SNRI for depression. The nurse recognizes which of the following as an SNRI?
Q34. A child diagnosed with ADHD is prescribed atomoxetine (Strattera). The nurse explains that it is a non-stimulant medication that works by inhibiting norepinephrine reuptake. True or False?
Q35. A parent asks why atomoxetine is considered different from stimulant medications for ADHD. The nurse responds that atomoxetine has a lower potential for __________ due to its SNRI mechanism rather than direct CNS stimulation.
Q36. A client prescribed amitriptyline (Elavil) is educated about the drug’s properties, including a long onset of action, significant anticholinergic effects, and lethal potential in overdose. Which choice best describes these features?
Q37. A nurse reviews a client’s chart and sees a black box warning on TCAs regarding suicide risk. The nurse knows that these medications can indeed increase the risk of suicidal behavior, especially early in treatment. True or False?
Q38. A client on doxepin (Sinequan) experiences dizziness upon standing. The nurse educates about preventing orthostatic hypotension by __________ before getting up.
Q39. A client on phenelzine (Nardil) is taught to avoid certain foods (like aged cheeses, cured meats, certain wines) to prevent hypertensive crisis. These foods are high in __________.
Q40. A nurse cautions a client on MAOIs about numerous potential drug interactions, including OTC decongestants, and reminds them of the black box warning for increased suicidal risk. True or False?
Q41. A client’s new prescription is an MAOI for treatment-resistant depression. The nurse recognizes which medication as an MAOI?
Q42. A client is prescribed bupropion (Wellbutrin) for depression. The nurse warns about which notable risk, especially at higher doses?
Q43. A client has been prescribed trazodone (Desyrel) to help with insomnia. The nurse confirms that it is commonly used off-label for sedation. True or False?
Q44. A client taking mirtazapine (Remeron) for depression also reports improved sleep and appetite. However, the nurse cautions that like other antidepressants, it carries a black box warning for increased __________ risk.
Q45. A school-age child on methylphenidate (Ritalin) for ADHD shows improvement in focus but the nurse monitors for habit-forming potential. True or False?
Q46. A parent asks about brand names of methylphenidate. The nurse replies that a common brand name used in treating ADHD is __________.
Q47. A nurse evaluates a client on an amphetamine-based stimulant for ADHD. Which of the following side effects is most likely?
Q48. A client with early Alzheimer’s disease is prescribed donepezil (Aricept) to increase acetylcholine levels. The nurse teaches that GI upset (nausea, diarrhea) and insomnia are common side effects. Which option best describes these side effects?
Q49. A client with moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease is prescribed memantine (Namenda). The nurse explains that memantine helps protect neurons against excess glutamate. True or False?
Q50. A client diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease struggles to find the right words and often substitutes incorrect words. The nurse recognizes this as __________, a difficulty with language.